What Is Death–According To The Bible?

 

Do a quick Google search on the internet and you will find scores of definitions and ideas concerning death.  Some things advanced are from “scientific” view.  Some thoughts are from political opinion.  And, you will find many thoughts and opinions put forth by numerous Bible teachers and believers.  Even those ideas vary.  Here are a sampling.

“Death, dying, and the afterlife are all shrouded in deep mystery, cloaked in darkness and generally surrounded by fear and apprehension.  The very idea of death strikes fear into many people’s hearts.”

“Death is the cessation of the connection between our mind and our body.  Most people believe that death takes place when the heart stops beating; but this does not mean that the person has died, because his subtle mind may still remain in his body.”

“Death may be the most misunderstood subject in the world today.”

“Death, the total cessation of life processes that eventually occurs in all living organisms.  The state of human death has always been obscured by mystery and superstition, and its precise definition remains controversial, differing according to culture and legal systems.

“Although there is no universally accepted definition of death, a 1971 Kansas statute comes close:  ‘A person will be considered medically and legally dead if, in the opinion of a physician, based on ordinary standard of medical practice, there is absence of spontaneous brain function.’”

Let us view a few of the thoughts and opinions of some Bible teachers and believers.

“Death is inevitable to whatever is born.  The Soul is free from the bondage of birth and death.  It is eternal; it has no death.  Anything that is born has to die, and because there is death, there will also be birth.  So death is connected to birth.  Wherever there is birth there is death.”

“According to the Bible, death is not the end of life but the separation of the soul from the body.  Scripture clearly speaks of both eternal life with God in heaven and eternal separation from God in hell.”

“The Biblical definition of death - whether physical or spiritual - is not non-existence, but separation.”

“Physical death is the separation of body and soul.”

Okay, the subject of death is something that apparently there is no universal agreement on. There are many opinions, beliefs and thoughts.  But, is there an authoritative source we can go to get some answers?  Yes, thankfully there is.  And, I’m not going to start off saying, as some of the views we looked at did, “the Bible says...”  Yes, we are going to see what the Bible says by first looking at what Jesus taught.  He was God in the flesh, by whom all things were created.  It was He that created and set in motion life and death.  He, I believe, knows where of He speaks.

We will begin by looking at His words in John 11 and 12.  You are familiar with the story, of Jesus’ friend, Lazarus,  being raised from the dead by Jesus.  There is SO-O-O much in this account and we won’t be able to cover every bit of what is there, but, we will look at what Jesus has to say about death.

Beginning in verse one John gives us a bit of the back story.  Martha, Mary and Lazarus were friends of Jesus.  John in verse two recounts the event of Mary anointing the feet of Jesus with ointment and wiping His feet with her hair.  John gets right to the heart of the story by telling us that Lazarus was sick.  This was a very serious illness and the sisters sent a messenger to Jesus informing Him.  All indications are that Jesus was at Bethabara, beyond the Jordan, approximately 20 miles away from  Bethany, perhaps a days journey for the messenger. (See John 1:28 and John 10:40.)

In verse 4 we read Jesus’ response, which was most likely carried back to Martha and Mary by the messenger.  There has been much discussion over what Jesus said.  Our English King James Version renders His words thus, “This sickness is not unto death, but for the glory of God, that the Son of God might be glorified thereby.”

We have the benefit of the rest of the story that John gives us and can gain understanding.  Those standing there at the time, including Jesus’ disciples, missed what He was saying.  He knew by a Word of Knowledge that at the moment He was speaking Lazarus had already died.  The text tells us that word came to Him of Lazarus’ sickness, which as we mentioned above, would have taken a day for the messenger to arrive.  In verse 6 we are told that Jesus remained where He was for two days.  After this He and His disciples made the trip to Bethany, a full day’s journey.  When they arrived, we are told in verse 17, that Lazarus “had lain in the grave four days already.”

So, what was Jesus expressing in verse 4?  What did He mean, “This sickness in not unto death,” when He was aware that Lazarus was already in the grave?  Knowing, as we do from John’s account we could possibly state it in a clearer fashion.  Jesus could have as well, but, He wanted His words to be a bit cryptic, keeping the meaning hidden and concealed. 

To understand what He was saying, maybe we could word it in a number of various ways.  For example, “Death, resulting from this sickness, is not the last word!”  “Although this sickness may bring death, that is not the conclusion to this situation.”  “Lazarus’ sickness will result in great glory to God.  He may die but it won’t hold him.”  “This sickness will not end in a death lasting until the great resurrection of all, But will be one to bring glory to God and to His Son.”

After making this statement John tells us a couple of things important to the story.  He tells us in verse 5 that Jesus loved Martha, Mary and Lazarus.  He had a very special connection with them.  Now, John tells us, that when Jesus got the message that Lazarus was sick He didn’t go rushing off to Bethany, BUT He “abode two days still in the same place where He was.”  Now, as we rehearsed above, Jesus was fully aware of the situation and knew what He was doing.

Then,  in verse 7, Jesus said to His disciples, “Let us go into Judea again.”  He didn’t make mention here of Lazarus.  And, His disciples responded, saying in essence, “What are you thinking?  The Jews recently were seeking you to kill you and you want to go back there?”

We won’t try to go into His whole response, given in verses 9 and 10, but let us look at verse 11.  Notice His words, “Our friend Lazarus sleepeth; but I go, that I may awake him out of sleep.”  When the disciples heard this they said, “Hey, if he is asleep he’ll be fine.”  Now, let us hear what Jesus said to that, verse 13.  “Howbeit Jesus spake of his death: but they thought that He had spoken of taking rest in sleep.”

Did we catch what Jesus says?  He equates death with sleeping.  And, this was not a new concept to those there with Him.  In the Old Testament Scriptures we find this expressed over and over.  In fact we find an interesting expression, mentioned in connection with various individuals, “slept with his fathers.”  This expression is used over 35 times and is clearly speaking of death.  Let us look at one account, 1 Kings 2:10, “So David slept with his fathers, and was buried in the city of David.”  One isn’t buried if he is taking rest.  As we read of Jesus’ disciples thinking His statement that they would go to wake Lazarus from sleep was referencing “taking of rest in sleep.”  Jesus make it quite clear that He was speaking of death, verse 14 of John 11, “Lazarus is dead.” 

Jesus says two things, meaning the same.  “Lazarus sleepeth;...” and “Lazarus is dead.”  This study won’t get into all the scientific research into sleep but I believe we all know what sleep is.  We sleep every night (or day) and we may not know all that research goes into, but we know the basics.  We sleep.  We are unaware of anything happening around us.  We are unaware of the passage of time.  We look at a clock and mentally calculate “how long we slept.”  I’d like to quote from a short article I found on the internet concerning sleep.  “In other words, a sleeping person is unconscious to most things happening in the environment.”  A bit later in the same article, “a sleeping person can be aroused if the stimulus is strong enough.”  It is stated that not only man but reptiles, birds and mammals all sleep.  And quoting again, “That is, they become unconscious to their surroundings for periods of time.”

When we are asleep we are unaware of what is taking place around us.  We are unconscious to what is happening.  Jesus is affirming what was known and understood by the writers of the Old Testament and by those around Him at the time, sleep is a shadow of death.   Solomon, the wisest man who ever lived, knew and understood sleep and death.  Notice what he writes in Ecc. 9:5, “For the living know that they shall die: but the dead know not any thing,...”  Just as in sleep, we are unconscious, not knowing anything that is happening around us.  When we are dead, we do not know anything.  David, Solomon’s father, also knew this truth.  In Psalms 146 and verse 4 he writes, “His breath goeth forth, he returneth to the earth; in that very day his thoughts perish.”

Back a few pages we read another verse that David penned expressing much the same thing.  Psa. 115:16, “The dead praise not the Lord, neither any that go down into silence.”  Earlier in the Psalms David makes another statement along the same line.  Psa. 6 and verse 5 he is in context speaking to God and says, “For in death there is no remembrance of thee: in the grave who shall give thee thanks?”  No, the dead have no memory, no thoughts, are not praising God and giving Him thanks.  They are “asleep!”

Isaiah, the prophet, tells us the same things we read from Solomon and David.  Notice Isa. 38:18-19,  “For the grave cannot praise thee, death can not celebrate thee: they that go down into the pit cannot hope for thy truth.  The living, the living, he shall praise thee, as I do this day:...”  Plainly it is only the living that is able to praise God.  The dead are asleep, unconscious, to any and everything.  They are not able to praise and celebrate God.  Their thoughts have perished. 

Job, who lived long before David, Solomon or Isaiah, understood about death.  Let us look at what he expressed while he was going through his trial.  In chapter 14 of Job we read, beginning with verse 10 and through verse 14.  “But man dieth, and wasteth away: yea, man giveth up the ghost, and where is he?  As the waters fail from the sea, and the flood decayeth and drieth up: So man lieth down, and riseth not: till the heavens be no more, they shall not awake, nor be raised out of their sleep.  O that thou wouldest hide me in the grave, that thou wouldest keep me in secret, until thy wrath be past, that thou wouldest appoint me a set time, and remember me!  If a man die, shall he live again?  All the days of my appointed time will I wait, till my change come.” 

Did you notice that Job knew and understood that death was equated to being asleep. Look again at  the words he used.  “But man dieth, and wasteth away; “ ”So man lieth down, and riseth not:” “they shall not awake, nor be raised out of their sleep.”  “All the days of my appointed time will I wait, till my change come.”  Yes, he knew that in death he would be asleep awaiting a resurrection.

Daniel also speaks of death as sleep, Dan. 12:2.  The prophet Jeremiah speaks in Jeremiah the 51st chapter about those who sleep a perpetual sleep.  BDB gives as the first definition of the word perpetual, “long duration.”  But, all of these men of God also knew and spoke of a time of awakening from the sleep of death, of a resurrection.

The resurrection was paramount in Jesus’ miracle and teaching about death and sleep in John 11. When Jesus spoke to Martha as He came into Bethany He told her that her brother would “rise again,” verse 23.  Martha believed in the resurrection of the dead and responded that she knew that Lazarus would rise again at the last day, verse24.  But, Jesus made His point, verse 25, “I am the resurrection...”  He knew what He was going to do in just a short time.

As I said earlier, there is so much in this account.  Jesus taught about death, but, also about resurrection.  And, in all of this we also understand that He was showing that He would soon die, be put into the grave and would be resurrected.  But, let us notice again what He says about Lazarus.

In verse 39 of John 11 we find Jesus at the grave and He speaks to Martha.    Look at how it refers to her, “Martha, the sister of him that was dead,”  Lazarus was dead.  He had earlier said that Lazarus was asleep.  Verse 44, after calling for Lazarus to come forth, we read that “he that was dead came forth,...”   Continuing the story in chapter 12 we are told that six days before the passover Jesus came to Bethany “where Lazarus was which had been dead, whom he raised from the dead.”  The resurrection of Lazarus, the raising him from the dead was, as Jesus had said in verse 11 of chapter 11, was the act of awakening him out of sleep.

We have read what Jesus said, what many of the Old Testament prophets and writers have written regarding death equated to sleep.  Let us now notice what is written and recorded by Paul and other New Testament writers.

Luke wrote both the gospel of Luke and the book of Acts.  In chapter 13 of the book of Acts, verse  36,  he speaks of King David.  “For David, after he had served his own generation by the will of God fell on sleep, and was laid unto his fathers, and saw corruption.”  Slightly different wording but exactly what we read earlier, “David slept with his fathers and was buried...” 

The apostle Paul gave us a great amount of teaching on death and the resurrection.  We’ll look at a few passages.  In his discussion of eating the bread and taking of the cup, what has been called communion, in 1 Cor. 11:30, he speaks of those who eat and drink without proper discernment of the Lord’s body.  “For this cause many are weak and sickly among you, and many sleep.”  His reference to sleep is indicating that many had died when they should have been receiving healing.

We’ll turn to the 15th chapter of 1 Corinthians in a moment, to what is referred to as “the resurrection chapter” but let us first look at Paul’s words in 1 Thes. 4..  Beginning with verse 13, “But I would not have you to be ignorant, brethren, concerning them which are asleep,...”  As we continue reading it becomes quite clear that he is speaking of those who have died, not just taking rest.  Verse 14, “For if we believe that Jesus died and rose again, even them which sleep in Jesus...”   Let us continue,  verse 15, “...that we which are alive and remain unto the coming of the Lord shall not prevent them which are asleep.”  He repeatedly calls death sleep.  Now, we come to verse 16 where Paul makes it very clear that the sleep he has been speaking of is death.  “...and the dead in Christ shall rise first.”  (I didn’t quote every word Paul wrote here as there would be a dozen studies or sermons generated.)

Now, to 1 Cor. 15.  Once again, there is so much that could be covered, but we’ll look specifically at his statements correlating sleep and death. He begins teaching about death and the resurrection in verse 12, speaking of Jesus rising from the dead.  Let us drop down to verse 18, “Then they also which are fallen asleep in Christ...”  Verse 20, “...and become the firstfruits  of them that slept.”  We know that his references to sleep is equated to death, as he continues in the following verses.  21,  “For since by man came death, by man came also the resurrection of the dead.”  22, “For as in Adam all die,...”  26, “The last enemy that shall be destroyed is death.”

Going down to verse 51, Paul tells us, “Behold, I shew you a mystery; We shall not all sleep, but we shall all be changed.”  52, “and the dead shall be raised incorruptible, and we shall be changed.”  55,  “O death, where is thy sting?  O grave, where is thy victory?”

From one end of the Bible to the other the words and teaching of Jesus is repeated by the writers of Scripture, death is over and over again referred to as sleep, an unconscious state, in which one is unaware of what is going on around them.  Thoughts have perished.  It is a period of awaiting being “awakened” at the resurrection.

I know that “religion,” has told us much that is contrary to what we have been reading.  I hear many, without Scriptural support, state that when a person dies that he has “gone home,” or has “gone to heaven,” or is now “with Jesus.”   One individual that I have learned a lot from and who I appreciate, recently made a statement on a live-streamed study, that David had gone to heaven and was with Jesus. I wanted to shout out through the internet, “That isn’t what Scripture says!”  Let us read what the Bible tells us about David.  Acts 2:29, this is Peter’s message on the Day of Pentecost, “Men and brethren, let me freely speak unto you of the patriarch David , that he is both dead and buried, and his sepulcher is with us unto this day.”  He says David is dead (asleep) and is buried.  But, wait!  Let us read further.  Notice, please, verse 34, “For David is not ascended into the heavens:...”  This is plain and tells us exactly what we have been reading.  David, along with all who have died, fallen asleep, are sleeping in their graves awaiting the resurrection, waiting to be awakened.

But, I know some of you are thinking and saying, “But doesn’t the soul and spirit leave and go to God?”  We read some of Solomon’s statements earlier concerning death and he also makes a statement regarding this question.  Ecc. 12:7, “Then shall the dust return to the earth as it was: and the spirit shall return unto God who gave it.”  Is he saying, as many teach, that the spirit goes to heaven and is dwelling with God and all the saved who have died?  How does that fit with the numerous Scriptures we have just read about “sleeping” in the graves until the resurrection?  Let us look at something else that Solomon said, Ecc. 3:21.  “Who knoweth the spirit of man that goeth upward, and the spirit of the beast that goeth downward to the earth?”   A few other translations make this question a bit clearer.  Let us look at a few.  Bible in Basic English, “Who is certain that the spirit of the sons of men goes up to heaven...?”  Contemporary English Version, “Who really knows if our spirits go up and the spirits of animals go down into the earth?”  New Living Translation, “For who can prove that the human spirit goes up...?”

Solomon, who was the wisest man who ever lived because of God’s great gift, understood that the breath and the spirit left the body at death, that it “returned to God,” BUT he didn’t know and he asked how any knew just where it went, did it go up to heaven?  There is no revelation on that.  We know that it goes to God for safe keeping until the resurrection. 

One of the greatest revelations we have came from the Apostle Paul.  It is recorded for us in 1 Thes. 5:23, “And the very God of peace sanctify you wholly; and I pray God your whole spirit and soul and body be preserved blameless unto the coming of our Lord Jesus Christ.”  Several translations make this a bit clearer by stating “your whole being–spirit, soul and body.”  Thayer’s Greek Definitions defines the Greek word, holokleros, Strong’s G3648, here translated ‘whole,’ as “complete in all its parts, in no part wanting or unsound, complete, entire, whole.”  Without all three components we are not a “whole being.”  Not a perfect analogy, but your car is not whole if you just have the body but no engine and transmission.  You might have an engine and transmission but without a body to put them into you don’t have a car. 

We can get a bit of the picture of what death is like, again, from the reference to sleep.  When we are asleep, the body is in a bit of a slowed down, suspended state.  The soul and spirit, where our thinking, our emotions, etc. are located, also are inactive.  When we are sound asleep we are not thinking, planning, or expressing emotions.  The instant we wake up we may immediately recall what we were thinking before we “fell asleep.” or if we were sad, happy, etc. our emotions come back immediately.  But, during sleep, as during the time we are dead,  there are no thoughts, we are not praising God, or cursing anyone, etc.

There are so many related studies that cry out to be done after reading many of these passages, but it isn’t the scope of this study.  But, let us just look at a few more verses.  We read much of what Paul wrote in 1 Cor. 15.  Let us review a few things before we turn to our final verses.  Paul stated, in verse 22 that in Adam all die and even so, in like accord, in Christ shall all be made alive.  Note, the dead aren’t alive, just off somewhere else, as is often taught.  In verse 23 he tells us that all will be made alive “in his own order.”  And, he gives us a bit of that order, Christ the firstfruits, afterward they  that  are Christ’s at his coming.  Paul tells us  plainly who these are over in 1 Thes. 4 that we read earlier, verse 14, “which sleep in Jesus.”  In verse 15 he refers to them as “them which are asleep.”  Verse 16 he again refers to the “dead in Christ” rising first.

Okay, let us turn to our final passage over in the book of Revelation.  Let’s read chapter 20 and we won’t attempt to explain all that is there in this study.  In verses 1-5 John speaks of the devil being bound and then of seeing thrones and those sitting on them being given judgment.  The description is of those that were martyred, that hadn’t come under the deception of the adversary.  He tells us that these would live and reign with Christ a thousand years.  And, in verse 5 we are told that the rest of the dead didn’t live again until after the thousand years.  Then he tells us what he has just written is the first resurrection, it is of those that Paul called the ones that are in Christ, those that “sleep in Jesus.”

John, here in Revelation 20, tells us about those that are a part of the first resurrection, verse 6, and of the devil being loosed for a short period after the thousand years.  Now, to the verses that are most pertinent to our study.  Verse 11 speaks of a great white throne and then in verse 12 he sees “the dead, small and great, stand before God...”  This, in light of verse 5, is the rest of the dead, those who were not the dead in Christ, those who did not sleep in Jesus.  Note, he says they were the dead.  Verse 13 says they were resurrected from the sea and “death and hell delivered up the dead.”  Verse 14 also speaks of “death and hell.”    There are all kinds of teaching about this but simply put he is saying “those that are in the grave,” be it a watery grave or anywhere they may have been buried.

Another time and another place it can be discussed about judgment, the casting of death and hell into the lake of fire.  But, the point for now is that all of these were dead, they were raised to life.  They were resurrected, not at Jesus return when the “dead in Christ,” those that were “asleep in Jesus,” were resurrected, but in their order, as John said, after the thousand years.

This was not “spirit and soul” coming from heaven to be put back into a body and then to enter a period of judgment.  A common teaching  precludes that there has been a judgement at death for them to have been “sent upward or downward.”  No, based on all the numerous Scriptures we have looked at, when they died they were asleep, unconscious awaiting this moment being described, being delivered from the sea and their graves.  All the dead, not in Christ, small and great, young and old, from all time periods, each “in his own order” will awake from this sleep of death to stand before God. 

Although there is so-o-o-o much more we could look at, I believe the Scriptures we have looked at tells us plainly that death is pictured by sleep.  It isn’t something unfathomable, something all that difficult to understand.  Sure, there are aspects we may not totally grasp but we don’t have to be confused by the many and varied teachings given by religion. 

September 2019

Does Nature Teach Us That It Is A Shame For A Man To Have Long Hair?

 

What did Paul mean when he asked the question, “Doth not even nature itself teach you, that, if a man have long hair, it is a shame unto him? (1 Cor. 11:14)  That question has been difficult for many to really understand.  How does nature teach us that? Some have stated that in nature we often find that the male is the brightly colored one, the one with the longest feathers or hair.  The male lion, for example, has the long shaggy mane while the female has no mane at all.

Let us try to understand.  We won’t go into a long study of this entire passage, which has been misunderstood by many, but will look briefly at the context here and look at the word “nature” as used here.

Let us begin our study in verse 4, “ Every man praying or prophesying, having his head covered, dishonoureth his head.”

The word "covered" here in verse 4 is literally "having (something) down the head." [Vine’s Expository Dictionary of Biblical Words]   Most of the many studies that I looked at on the internet made the assumption that this is speaking of a veil, a piece of cloth. Taking this verse by itself we could not know. However, in all Bible study one needs to look at the context. Jumping ahead to verse 14 we see that Paul is speaking about long hair.

Why would Paul use the word "covered" and not long hair? Actually, he is saying the same thing. What most of us don’t recognize is that Paul, trained in the Torah and in Hebrew, is using a common form of Hebrew poetry called parallelism. The Angus-Green Bible Handbook says that the writings of the prophets are for the most part in poetical form. It is further stated that the leading characteristics of Hebrew poetry "may be described generally as consisting in the ornate and elevated character of the style, in the use of certain words and forms of words, in the sententious manner of expression, and especially in what is entitled parallelism; ..." There are a number of different varieties of parallelism. What we see here is where "the second member is an echo of the first, expressing nearly the same sentiment in a varied form." An example given in the Angus-Green handbook is that of Psalm 19. "The heavens declare the glory of God;" being the first member. The second which echos the first is "And the firmament showeth His handywork." It is further pointed out that "parallelism often affords important aid in interpretation, by exhibiting the salient points of the passage in their true relation. It is especially useful where the construction is complicated or elliptical, or where uncommon words occur; one member of a sentence which is clear assisting to determine the meaning of another which is ambiguous. Very greatly, too, does this rhythmic arrangement of the thought enhance its force and beauty." Paul uses the word "covered" in this verse and the next several verses.  The meaning is enhanced by the clear statements about long hair in verses 14 and 15.

In this study we won’t take the time to look at the following verses but will jump right on down to verses 14 and 15.  Just let me state, and you can check it yourself, Paul talks about the creation of man and woman.

Now we come to verse14 that we quoted at the very beginning of this study,   “Doth not even nature itself teach you, that, if a man have long hair, it is a shame unto him?”

Paul makes a plea to nature, stating something like this, “Look around, you can see it in nature; men have short hair and women have long hair.”  Notice the word nature.  The Greek word is phusis, Strong’s G5449.  Let us look at some of the definitions as given in Thayer’s Greek Lexicon,   “the nature of things, the force, laws, order of nature” It continues,   “as opposed to what is monstrous, abnormal, perverse” And, “birth, physical origin.”

Phusis is used in about a dozen places in the New Testament with the same meanings as given by Thayer’s. Let us look at one passage,  Romans 1:26, 27.  When men and women participated in homosexual relationships, Paul states that such relationships are “ against nature (phusis)” It is against the original intent and design for man and woman. God’s design for plants, animals and humans were to maintain their nature and reproduce after their kind.  Man and woman were distinct by nature in sex and hair.

The uniqueness of hair length, I believe,  was given originally by The Creator with the angels looking over His shoulder. Angels recognize the importance of nature as it relates to the purpose in God’s design, what He created was good. When angels recognize a woman without a covering (long hair) they recognize something out of order (nature) or creation (God’s original design).  Men and women have basically maintained their hair in accordance to God’s creation (nature); much even till this day. Men with exceptionally long hair are given a second look, just as much as a woman with extremely short hair.

In Gen 1:26-28 we read of the creation of the man and  the woman.  I’m almost certain that the woman was not given a veil at creation.  I think Paul is telling us that she had long hair from the beginning; even “nature” indicates that. Clearly nature teaches that long hair for the man “is a dishonor to him” and long hair for the woman “is a glory to her.” (1 Cor. 11:15,  “ But if a woman have long hair, it is a glory to her: for her hair is given her for a covering.”)

Paul isn’t stating that we need to look at the lions and the various other animals around us, but was just stating that the “very order of nature,” “the normal,” the way God created and set things should teach us that for a man to let his hair grow long is shameful, that he dishonors his head.  I believe that it is interesting to read Revelation 9, verses 7 and 8.  John is relating the vision he had seen and speaking of locusts (just what they may be I’m not prepared to say) but in verse 8 he tells us “they had hair as the hair of women,...”  Jamieson, Fausset and Brown Commentary says, “long and flowing.”  Some translations say “long hair.”  I believe this is a verification of the “normal” state, the “natural order.”  Women are to have long hair, men shorter hair.

Preaching And Teaching

Some time ago I was a participant on an e-mail discussion group that included a number of men employed in the ministry of a religious organization.  One of the fellows raised a question to the rest of the individuals in the group.  His question was, “What constitutes great preaching?”  There were a number of ideas kicked around but one response triggered a study.  The person’s comment was that perhaps rather than great preaching we should be focusing on great teaching.

Isn’t preaching and teaching the same thing?  We have ministers standing in pulpits every week “preaching” sermons to their congregations and they generally feel they are teaching the people in attendance about the Word of God.  Most consider themselves “preachers.”  They would think of a “teacher” as one who spends time in a classroom with “students.”  Is “preaching” and “teaching” the same thing, according to Biblical usage?

To begin our study let us notice a couple of Scriptures.  (Note: this is a Bible study so be prepared to read a lot of Scripture.)

Matthew 11:1, “And it came to pass, when Jesus had made an end of commanding his twelve disciples, he departed thence to teach and to preach in their cities.” 

Acts 5:42,   “And daily in the temple, and in every house, they ceased not to teach and preach Jesus Christ.” 

We find in these two verses references to both teaching and preaching.  Apparently in the mind of the writer there is a difference.  Hopefully, in this study we will be able to see what that difference is. As we begin our study we will find that there are a number of Greek words that have been translated into the single English word “preach” and also, several Greek words that are rendered “teach” in English.  Let’s look first at a number of the words translated “preach.”

The first Greek word we will look at is euaggelizo, G2097 in Strong’s.  This word is used 55 times in the New Testament and is translated as “preach” 23 times, “preach the gospel” 22 times, “bring good tidings” twice, “show glad tidings” twice and once each as “bring glad tidings,” “declare,” and “declare glad tidings.”  Various definitions given in the lexicon are, to bring good news, to announce glad tidings, and it says “in the NT used especially of the glad tidings of the coming kingdom of God.”

The following are just a few of the passages where this Greek word, euaggelizo is used.

Matthew 11:5, “The blind receive their sight, and the lame walk, the lepers are cleansed, and the deaf hear, the dead are raised up, and the poor have the gospel preached to them.” 

Luke 1:19,   “And the angel answering said unto him, I am Gabriel, that stand in the presence of God; and am sent to speak unto thee, and to shew thee these glad tidings.” 

Luke 4:43,   “And he said unto them, I must preach the kingdom of God to other cities also: for therefore am I sent.” 

Acts 8:12,   “But when they believed Philip preaching the things concerning the kingdom of God, and the name of Jesus Christ, they were baptized, both men and women.” 

Romans 10:15,   “And how shall they preach, except they be sent? as it is written, How beautiful are the feet of them that preach the gospel of peace, and bring glad tidings of good things!”  (In this verse the word “preach” in the first phrase “And how shall they preach....” is another Greek word G2784,  kerusso, which we will look at later.  In the last phrase “preach the gospel” and “bring glad tidings” are both translated from G2097, euaggelizo.

The second Greek word we will look at is diaggello, G1229 in Strong’s.  It is used only three times in the NT, as preach, signify and declare.  The lexicon defines this word “to carry a message through, announce everywhere, through places, through assemblies of men, etc.  To publish abroad, declare.”  Let’s look at the three places it is used.

Luke 9:60,    “Jesus said unto him, Let the dead bury their dead: but go thou and preach the kingdom of God.”

Acts 21:26,    “Then Paul took the men, and the next day purifying himself with them entered into the temple, to signify the accomplishment of the days of purification, until that an offering should be offered for every one of them.”

Romans 9:17,    “For the scripture saith unto Pharaoh, Even for this same purpose have I raised thee up, that I might shew my power in thee, and that my name might be declared throughout all the earth.”

A third Greek word which is used 17 times in the NT is kataggello, number G2605 in Strong’s.  It is translated as preach, show, declare, teach, speak of.  The definitions given by the lexicon are, “to announce, declare, promulgate, make known.  To proclaim publicly, publish.  To denounce, report, betray.”  The following are a few of the 17 places kataggello is used.

Acts 13:5,    “And when they were at Salamis, they preached the word of God in the synagogues of the Jews: and they had also John to [their] minister.”

Acts 17:23,    “For as I passed by, and beheld your devotions, I found an altar with the inscription, To The Unknown God.  Whom therefore ye ignorantly worship, him declare I unto you.”

Acts 26:23,    “That Christ should suffer, [and] that he should be the first that should rise from the dead, and should shew light unto the people, and to the Gentiles.”

Rom. 1:8,    “First, I thank my God through Jesus Christ for you all, that your faith is spoken of throughout the whole world.”

1 Cor. 2:1,   “ And I, brethren, when I came to you, came not with excellency of speech or of wisdom, declaring unto you the testimony of God.”

Phil. 1:18,    “What then?  notwithstanding, every way, whether in pretence, or in truth, Christ is preached; and I therein do rejoice, yea, and will rejoice.”

Let us move on to another Greek word that has been translated as “preach.”  It is laleo, Strong’s number G2980.  It has been translated  primarily as “speak,” a total of 244 times.  Other ways it has been used: “say” 15 times, “tell” 12 times, “talk” 11 times, “preach” 6 times, and “utter” 4 times. The lexicon definition is” “to utter a voice or emit a sound.  To speak.  To use the tongue or the faculty of speech.  To utter articulate sounds.”  We will look at a few passages where laleo is used.

Matt. 13:13,    “Therefore speak I to them in parables: because they seeing see not; and hearing they hear not, neither do they understand.”

Mark 2:2,    “And straightway many were gathered together, insomuch that there was no room to receive [them], no, not so much as about the door: and he preached the word unto them.”

Luke 2:20,    “And the shepherds returned, glorifying and praising God for all the things that they had heard and seen, as it was told unto them.”

John 4:27,    “And upon this came his disciples, and marvelled that he talked with the woman: yet no man said, What seekest thou? or, Why talkest thou with her?”

John 18:20,    “Jesus answered him, I spake openly to the world; I ever taught in the synagogue, and in the temple, whither the Jews always resort; and in secret have I said nothing.”

The next Greek word we will look at is the one referred to earlier.  It is kerusso, Strong’s G2784.  It is used 61 times in the NT and is translated 51 of those times as “preach,” and the other 10 times as “publish,” “proclaim,” “preached,” and “preacher.” The definition given in the lexicon is, “to be a herald, to officiate as a herald.  To proclaim after the manner of a herald.  To publish, proclaim openly.  Used of the public proclamation of the gospel.”

We will look at a few passages where kerusso is used.

Matt. 3:1,    “In those days came John the Baptist, preaching in the wilderness of Judaea.”

Matt. 4:17,    “From that time Jesus began to preach, and to say, Repent: for the kingdom of heaven is at hand.”

Matt. 24:14,    “And this gospel of the kingdom shall be preached in all the world for a witness unto all nations; and then shall the end come.”

Mark 1:14,   “ Now after that John was put in prison, Jesus came into Galilee, preaching the gospel of the kingdom of God.”

Mark 13:10,    “And the gospel must first be published among all nations.”

Mark 16:15,    “And he said unto them, Go ye into all the world, and preach the gospel to every creature.”

Acts 28:31,    “Preaching the kingdom of God, and teaching those things which concern the Lord Jesus Christ, with all confidence, no man forbidding him.”

1 Cor. 1:23,    “But we preach Christ crucified, unto the Jews a stumblingblock, and unto the Greeks foolishness.”

There is yet one more Greek word for us to look at.  It is kerux, G2783 in Strong’s.  It is used 3 times and in all three places it is translated “preacher.”  As defined by the lexicon: “A herald or messenger vested with public authority, who conveyed the official messages of kings, magistrates, princes, military commanders, or who gave a public summons or demand, and performed various other duties.  In the NT God’s ambassador, and the herald or proclaimer of the divine word.”

Here are the 3 Scriptures where kerux is used.

1 Tim. 2:7,    “Whereunto I am ordained a preacher, and an apostle, (I speak the truth in Christ, and lie not;) a teacher of the Gentiles in faith and verity.”

2 Tim. 1:11,    “Whereunto I am appointed a preacher, and an apostle, and a teacher of the Gentiles.”

2 Pet. 2:5,    “And spared not the old world, but saved Noah the eighth person, preacher of righteousness, bringing in the flood upon the world of the ungodly;”

We have looked briefly at the six Greek words that are used throughout the NT and are translated into the English words “preach,” “preached,” “preacher,” etc.  At this point could we make any general statement as to what it means in the NT to “PREACH?”  What is it that is generally being “PREACHED?”

I think that you will have to agree with me when I say that I see the primary meanings and usage of all of these words is that of proclaiming, declaring, publishing, announcing, making known, the good tidings, the good news, the gospel of the kingdom of God and the Word of God.  These words all seem to be used in speaking to the public at large, to the general population.  They are used regarding John the Baptist, Jesus, the Apostle Paul and others speaking to the large groups they encountered about Jesus the Messiah, the kingdom of God and in general the gospel.

Now, as Paul Harvey would say, “the rest of the story.”  Let’s look at the Greek words translated “teach” and see how they differ from those translated “preach.”

We will begin with the Greek word that is translated “teach” or “taught” 97 times in the NT.  It is didasko, G1321 in Strong’s.  Here are the definitions as given in the lexicon.  “To teach.  To hold discourse with others in order to instruct them.  To be a teacher.  To discharge the office of teacher, conduct one’s self as a teacher.  To teach one.  To impart instruction.  Instill doctrine into one.  To explain or expound a thing.  To teach one something.”

Following are a few Scriptures where this word, didasko, is used.

Matt. 5:2,    “And he opened his mouth, and taught them, saying,”

Matt. 26:55,    “In that same hour said Jesus to the multitudes, Are ye come out as against a thief with swords and staves for to take me?  I sat daily with you teaching in the temple, and ye laid no hold on me.”

Matt. 13:54,   “And when he was come into his own country, he taught them in their synagogue, insomuch that they were astonished, and said, Whence hath this man this wisdom, and these mighty works?”

Matt. 21:23,    “And when he was come into the temple, the chief priests and the elders of the people came unto him as he was teaching, and said, By what authority doest thou these things? and who gave thee this authority”

Mark 1:21,    “And they went into Capernaum; and straightway on the sabbath day he entered into the synagogue and taught.”

Mark 6:2,    “And when the sabbath day was come, he began to teach in the synagogue: and many hearing him were astonished, saying, From whence hath this man these things?  and what wisdom is this which is given unto him, that even such mighty works are wrought by his hands?”

Mark 6:34,    “And Jesus, when he came out, saw much people, and was moved with compassion toward them, because they were as sheep not having a shepherd: and he began to teach them many things.”

Acts 5:21,    “And when they heard that, they entered into the temple early in the morning, and taught.  But the high priest came, and they that were with him, and called the council together, and all the senate of the children of Israel, and sent to the prison to have them brought.”

Acts 5:25,    “Then came one and told them, saying, Behold, the men whom ye put in prison are standing in the temple, and teaching the people.”

1 Cor. 4:17,    “For this cause have I sent unto you Timotheus, who is my beloved son, and faithful in the Lord, who shall bring you into remembrance of my ways which be in Christ, as I teach every where in every church.”

The next word we will look at is directly related to didasko, G1321, that we have just been looking at.  It is G1322, didache.  29 times out of 30 this word is rendered “doctrine” and once as “has been taught.”  Notice the definitions from the lexicon.  “Teaching.  That which is taught.  Doctrine, teaching, concerning something.  The act of teaching, instruction.  In religious assemblies of the Christians, to speak in the way of teaching, in distinction from other modes of speaking in public.”

Here are just a few of the 30 places it is used.

Matt. 7:28,    “And it came to pass, when Jesus had ended these sayings, the people were astonished at his doctrine.”

Mark 12:38,    “And he said unto them in his doctrine, Beware of the scribes, which love to go in long clothing, and love salutations in the marketplaces.”

Luke 4:32,    “And they were astonished at his doctrine: for his word was with power.”

Acts 17:19,    “And they took him, and brought him unto Areopagus, saying, May we know what this new doctrine, whereof thou speakest, is?”

Titus 1:9,    “Holding fast the faithful word as he hath been taught, that he may be able by sound doctrine (G1319) both to exhort and to convince the gainsayers.”

Since we just referenced G1319 in Titus 1:9  let us look at it next.  It is didaskalia.  It is translated into the English words “doctrine” (19 times), “teaching” and “learning” each twice.  The lexicon definitions are: “Teaching, instruction.  Teaching.  That which is taught, doctrine.  Teachings, precepts.”

Let’s look at a few verses in which this word, didaskalia, is used.

Matt. 15:9,    “But in vain they do worship me, teaching (#1321, didasko) for doctrines the commandments of men.”

Romans 12:7,   “Or ministry, let us wait on our ministering: or he that teacheth, (G1321, didasko) on teaching.”

Romans 15:4,    “For whatsoever things were written aforetime were written for our learning, that we through patience and comfort of the scriptures might have hope.”

1 Tim. 1:10,    “For whoremongers, for them that defile themselves with mankind, for menstealers, for liars, for perjured persons, and if there be any other thing that is contrary to sound doctrine;”

2 Tim. 3:16,    “All scripture is given by inspiration of God, and is profitable for doctrine, for reproof, for correction, for instruction in righteousness.”

Titus 2:1,    “But speak thou the things which become sound doctrine.”

Another related word is didaskalos, G1320 in Strong’s.  This word is used 58 times in the KJV.  The majority of the times, 40, it is rendered “Master” referring to Jesus.  The other 18 places the word is used it is translated “teacher” (10 times), “master” (not capitalized, 7 times), and “doctor” once.   Didaskalos is defined by the lexicon as: “A teacher.  In the NT one who teaches concerning the things of God, and the duties of man.  One who is fitted to teach.”

Once again we will look at a few of the times this word is used.

Matt. 8:19,    “And a certain scribe came, and said unto him, Master, I will follow thee whithersoever thou goest.”

Matt. 10:24,    “The disciple is not above his Master, nor the servant above his lord.”

Luke 2:46,    “And it came to pass, that after three days they found him in the temple, sitting in the midst of the doctors, both hearing them, and asking them questions.”

Acts 13:1,    “Now there were in the church that was at Antioch certain prophets and teachers; as Barnabas, and Simeon that was called Niger, and Lucius of Cyrene, and Manaen, which had been brought up with Herod the tetrarch, and Saul.”

Rom. 2:20,    “An instructor (G3810) of the foolish, a teacher of babes, which hast the form of knowledge and of the truth in the law.”

1 Cor. 12:28,    “And God hath set some in the church, first apostles, secondarily prophets, thirdly teachers, after that miracles, then gifts of healings, helps, governments, diversities of tongues.”

1 Cor. 12:29,    “Are all apostles?  are all prophets?  are all teachers?  are all workers of miracles?”

Heb. 5:12,    “For when for the time ye ought to be teachers, ye have need that one teach (#1321) you again which be the first principles of the oracles of God; and are become such as have need of milk, and not of strong meat.”

There are two more related words we need to take a quick look at, G1317 and G1318 in Strong’s.  G1317, didaktikos, is the word translated “apt to teach” in the letters to Timothy. (1 Tim. 3:2 and 2 Tim. 2:24)  The word is simply defined as: “apt and skillful in teaching.” G1318, didakto, is rendered twice as “which one teacheth” and once as “taught.”  The word is defined as: “That can be taught.  Taught, instructed by one.  Teachings, precepts.”

Notice quickly a couple of passages where this word, didakto, is used.

John 6:45,    “It is written in the prophets, And they shall be all taught of God.  Every man therefore that hath heard, and hath learned of the Father, cometh unto me.”

1 Cor. 2:13,    “Which things also we speak, not in the words which man’s wisdom teacheth, but which the Holy Ghost teacheth; comparing spiritual things with spiritual.”

There is another Greek word that is translated into the English word “teach” at least twice in the NT.  It is matheteuo, G3100 in Strong’s.  It is also rendered “instruct” and “be disciple” one time each.  The lexicon definition is: “To be a disciple of one.  To follow his precepts and instructions.  To make a disciple.  To teach, instruct.”

We will look at all four places this word, matheteuo, is used.

Matt. 13:52,    “Then said he unto them, Therefore every scribe which is instructed unto the kingdom of heaven is like unto a man that is an householder, which bringeth forth out of his treasure things new and old.”

Matt. 27:57,    “When the even was come, there came a rich man of Arimathaea, named Joseph, who also himself was Jesus’ disciple.”

Matt. 28:19,    “Go ye therefore, and teach all nations, baptizing them in the name of the Father, and of the Son, and of the Holy Ghost.”

Acts 14:21,    “And when they had preached the gospel to that city, and had taught many, they returned again to Lystra, and to Iconium, and Antioch.”

Although matheteuo is used only 4 times a related word is used over 260 times.  It is mathetes, G3101.  It is the Greek word that is translated into English as “disciple.”  The definitions of mathetes as given in the lexicon is: “A learner, pupil, disciple.”

Here are just a few of the verses in which mathetes is used.

Matt. 5:1,    “And seeing the multitudes, he went up into a mountain and when he was set, his disciples came unto him.”

Matt. 13:36,    “Then Jesus sent the multitude away, and went into the house: and his disciples came unto him, saying, Declare unto us the parable of the tares of the field.”

John 21:12,    “Jesus saith unto them, Come and dine.  And none of the disciples durst ask him, Who art thou? knowing that it was the Lord.”

Acts 1:15,    “And in those days Peter stood up in the midst of the disciples, and said, (the number of names together were about an hundred and twenty,)”

Acts 6:7,    “And the word of God increased; and the number of the disciples multiplied in Jerusalem greatly; and a great company of the priests were obedient to the faith.”

Acts 9:26,    “And when Saul was come to Jerusalem, he assayed to join himself to the disciples: but  they were all afraid of him, and believed not that he was a disciple.”

Acts 21:16,    “There went with us also certain of the disciples of Caesarea, and brought with them one Mnason of Cyprus, and old disciple, with whom we should lodge.”

Now that we have looked at the Greek words translated “teach,” “teacher,” “taught,” etc. can we make any general statements about what it means to teach?  Do we see any differences between teach and preach?

Our assessment of “preach” was that of proclaiming, declaring the gospel message to the public at large.  But, in looking at “teach” we see the act of instructing, of explaining or expounding a thing, of instilling doctrine or teaching in another.  One that “teaches” is a “teacher.”  One that is “taught” is a “disciple.”  I believe we can state, based on the Scriptures we have looked at and reviewing the meanings of the various Greek words we studied, that when the NT speaks of “preaching” it is referring to the proclaiming of the gospel to those who have never heard the message of Jesus the Messiah.  And, further, when it speaks of “teaching” it is in reference to the instruction of those who have heard and/or are responding to that “preaching.”

Let us look at just a few Scriptures which I believe illustrates this understanding and explanation.

Matt. 11:1,    “And it came to pass, when Jesus had made an end of commanding his twelve disciples (G3101), he departed thence to teach (G1321) and to preach (G2784) in their cities.

Who would we say He “preached” to?  To the general populous,  the multitudes of the cities.  And, who would He have been “teaching”?  To those who heard His message and came to learn more.

Acts 14:21-23,    “And when they had preached (G2097) the gospel to that city, and had taught (G3100) many, they returned again to Lystra, and to Iconium, and to Antioch.  Vs.22    Confirming the souls of the disciples (G3101), and exhorting them to continue in the faith, and that we must through much tribulation enter into the kingdom of God.  Vs. 23    And when they had ordained them elders in every church, and had prayed with fasting, they commanded them to the Lord, on whom they believed.”

The gospel was preached to that city, is says.  Indicating it was the public as a whole.  Who, then, do we think the “many” were that were taught?  It seems logical that it was those who became disciples.

The apostle Paul tells us that he was ordained or appointed a “preacher.”  Let’s look at the two verses that he states this.

1 Tim. 2:7,    “Whereunto I am ordained a preacher (G2783), and an apostle, (I speak the truth in Christ, and lie not;) a teacher (G1320) of the Gentiles in faith and verity.”

2 Tim. 1:11,    “Whereunto I am appointed a preacher (G2783), and an apostle, and a teacher (G1320) of the Gentiles.

With what we have studied these verses are simple to explain.  Paul was a preacher, “a herald or messenger vested with public authority, herald or proclaimer of the divine word,” often speaking to large groups of people concerning Jesus and the gospel of the Kingdom of God.  He was a teacher, “one who teaches concerning the things of God,” to those among the Gentiles who were responding to the public proclamation and were being placed within the body of the Messiah.  He also says he was an apostle.  This word is from the Greek apostolos, G652 in Strong’s.   It is “a delegate, messenger, one sent forth with orders.”  He was commissioned by Jesus the Messiah to “Go!”  He went both preaching and teaching.

In addition to the above verses where Paul says he was ordained/appointed a preacher, we see only two additional verses mentioning preachers.

Rom. 10:14,   “ How then shall they call on him in whom they have not believed?  and how shall they believe in him of whom they have not heard?  and how shall they hear without a preacher.”

2 Pet. 2:5,    “And spared not the old world, but saved Noah the eighth person, a preacher of righteousness, bringing in the flood upon the world of the ungodly;”

In both verses we find the proclaiming of a message or warning as a herald.  These do not refer to bringing a message to a congregation on Sunday morning.

As we conclude this study I’d like to reflect a bit on the belief and assumption that many have, including most of those in the “ministry” of the religious organizations.  They believe, because that is what they have heard and had expressed to them for all their lives, that a “minister” is a “preacher.”  It is felt that he must “preach” a sermon each week to his or her church congregation.  But, this is not what the Scriptures reveal.

The NT refers to elders (G4245 in Strong’s, presbuteros, “those who presided over the assemblies or churches”), bishops and overseerers (G1985 in Strong’s, episkopos, “an overseerer; a man charged with the duty of seeing that things to be done by others are done rightly, any curator, guardian or superintendent; the superintendent, elder or overseerer of a Christian church).  Metaphorically, the “overseerers of Christian assemblies” were referred to as shepherds (G4166 in Strong’s, poimen, translated in the AV as shepherd [15 times], Shepherd [2 times], and pastor [1 time].)

Let’s notice a very interesting verse written by the Apostle Paul, Ephesians 4:11.  “And he gave some, apostles; and some, prophets; and some, evangelists; and some, pastors and teachers;” “Pastors” is G4166, poimen, and teachers is G1320, didaskalos.  But most obvious by it’s absence is “preacher.”  There is no mention of Christ giving the function of “preacher” to His church. 

Church “pastors,”and “ministers,” of whatever organization, need to realize they are not a “preacher” but need to learn to be proper overseerers and teachers.  They need to quit concerning themselves with “what is great ‘preaching’” and learn to be humble servants and “helpers of the joy” of those they have been given the opportunity to serve.  They need to be learning to properly teach.  If they don’t have that gift they need to be asking for it, and if they aren’t receiving it they need to switch occupations.

Is there not a place and a need for a “preacher?”  In three verses in the NT we find the job function of “evangelist” mentioned, including Eph. 4:11 that we just looked at.  That function could be equated with that of “preaching.”  The Greek word translated “evangelist” is G2099 in Strong’s, euaggelistes.  The main definition given in the lexicon is: “bringer of good tidings.”  This Greek word is of course a related word to euaggelizo, (G2097) that we looked at earlier, that is translated “preach, preach the gospel, bring good tidings, show glad tidings, bring glad tidings, declare, declare glad tidings.”  There are some that have been given the function of proclaiming the gospel to the world as an evangelist, as a “preacher,” but most who claim to be, feel they are, and are thought to be by most of their congregations ARE NOT. 

first  revision 12/15/02
more recent revision 6/6/11
latest revision 9/10/19

“Put, I Pray Thee, Thy Hand Under My Thigh”

 

There are a couple of instances of  oaths in the Old Testament which when we first read them appear to be very strange and unusual.  The first of these is found in Genesis 24 verses 1 through 9.  Here we find Abraham asking his servant to swear that he wouldn’t take a wife for Abraham’s son from the daughters of the Canaanites.  Notice specifically verses 2 and 9.  “And Abraham said unto his eldest servant of his house, that ruled over all that he had, Put, I pray thee, thy hand under my thigh:”   “And the servant put his hand under the thigh of Abraham his master, and sware to him concerning that matter.”

The second account is in Genesis 47:27-31.  We find here that Jacob, whose name had been changed to Israel, was approaching the time of his death.  He asked his son, Joseph, to swear to him that when the Israelites left Egypt that they would take his bones with them and bury them outside of Egypt.  Verse 29 states, “put, I pray thee, thy hand under my thigh, and deal kindly and truly with me; bury me not, I pray thee, in Egypt.”  And, verse 31 says that Jacob asked his son to “Swear unto me.  And he sware unto him.”

To those of us in this day and age find this very strange.  Why would Abraham and later Jacob ask that one “put his hand under his thigh” and swear an oath?  What is this all about?

I checked various translations, thinking that maybe there might be a better translation.  A couple said “leg” or “hip” rather than thigh but none gave any additional clarification.

Finally, I checked the Hebrew word that is translated “thigh.”  The word is yarek, Strong’s number H3409.  It is from an unused root meaning to be soft.  The definition states, “the thigh (from its fleshy softness): by euphemism [My note: a euphemism is the substitution of an inoffensive or mild expression for one that may offend or suggest something unpleasant.] the generative parts; figurative a shank, flank, side; body, loins, shaft, side, thigh.”

I believe that we can begin to understand where the hand was placed–on the male genitals.

But, why?  Before we answer that let us ask another question.  Why is a Bible used in the modern courtroom?  Isn’t it because it is esteemed to be the most holy and sacred thing we possess, the most holy thing between man and God?

Now, back to why the hand was placed on the male genitals.  In Genesis chapter 17 we read of the  covenant that God made with Abram, whose name was later changed to Abraham.  In verses 10 and 11 we read of the sign of that covenant.  “This is my covenant, which ye shall keep, between me and you and thy seed after thee; Every man child among you shall be circumcised, And ye shall circumcise the flesh of your foreskins; and it shall be a token of the covenant betwixt me and you.”

Can we begin to understand?  There was no Bible in existence.  The most holy thing that Abraham and Jacob had was the covenant they had with God.  The “sign” or “token” of that covenant was circumcision. 

Genesis 24:2 and Genesis 47:29 could be much better understood if it had been rendered, “Please, put your hand upon my circumcised part: And I will make thee swear by the Lord...”

How Long Were The Israelites In Egypt?

 

                   
Have you, like me, assumed the Israelites were in Egypt for 430 years?  After all, the Scripture seems to clearly say that.  Notice Exodus 12 verses 40 and 41.
        
“ Now the sojourning of the children of Israel, who dwelt in Egypt, [was] four hundred and thirty years.  And it came to pass at the end of the four hundred and thirty years, even the selfsame day it came to pass, that all the hosts of the LORD went out from the land of Egypt.”
    
Some translations state dogmatically that the children of Israel were in Egypt 430 years.  The Tanakh, the Holy Scriptures, says “The length of time that the Israelites lived in Egypt was four hundred and thirty years;...”

So at first reading it sure seems to say they were there for 430 years.  But, to make the situation seem even more confusing, notice what Abram was told in Genesis 15:13.

“And he said unto Abram, Know of a surety that thy seed shall be a stranger in a land [that is] not theirs, and shall serve them; and they shall afflict them four hundred years;”

Can we understand all of this?  How long were the Israelites actually in Egypt?  Was it 400 years, 430 years or possibly a different number of years?   And, what does God mean when He says that “even the selfsame day it came to pass?”  I believe this study will reveal some very interesting and important understanding.

There are a few other verses that contain vital information that will enable us to understand.  One of those is Galatians 3:17.  This verse states, “And this I say, that the covenant, that was confirmed before of God in Christ, the law, which was four hundred and thirty years after, cannot disannul, that it should make the promise of none effect.”  The statement made here is somewhat clearer in the Bible in Basic English translation.  It states, “Now this I say: The law, which came four hundred and thirty years after, does not put an end to the agreement made before by God, so as to make the undertaking without effect.”  This verse tells us the law, the 10 Commandments that were given at Mt. Sinai just a few short weeks after the departure from Egypt, was “four hundred and thirty years after” the making of the promise.  That promise, as shown in verse 18, was the one made first with Abraham and reconfirmed with him, his son and his grandson.

Galatians 3:18  For if the inheritance [be] of the law, [it is] no more of promise: but God gave [it] to Abraham by promise. 
            
We find that promise that God made with Abraham recorded in Genesis chapter 12 and verses 1-3.  By putting some information together that the Bible gives us we can determine when the Israelites went into Egypt and how long they were there.  The first bit of information is here in Genesis 12.  In verse 4 we are told that Abram (later changed to Abraham) was 75 years old when this covenant was made. 25 years later, when Abraham was 100 years old, Isaac was born (Genesis 21:5).  Isaac was 60 years old when Esau and Jacob were born (Genesis 25:26).  In Genesis 47:8-9 we are told that Jacob was 130 years old when he and the rest of the seventy souls (Gen. 46:27) came into Egypt and began their stay in that land.  All we have to do is add the figures together. 25, from the covenant to the birth of Isaac plus 60 to the birth of Jacob and 130 more until Jacob entered into Egypt, a total of 215 years.  Subtracting 215 from 430 we find that the time in Egypt was another 215 years.

But, what about the verse we read in Genesis 15 mentioning 400 years?  How is that reckoned?  Notice that verse again.  “And he said unto Abram, Know of a surety that thy seed shall be a stranger in a land that is not theirs, and shall serve them; and they shall afflict them four hundred years.”  We find another account of this over in the New Testament, Acts 7:6.  It states, “And God spake on this wise, That his seed should sojourn in a strange land; and that they should bring them into bondage, and entreat them evil four hundred years.” (Emphasis mine.)  Did you catch what these verses said?  Both verses very specifically indicate the four hundred years is to be regarding “thy seed” or “his seed.”  We know from our study of Scripture that the son, the seed, that the promises were to come through was Isaac.  As previously mentioned Isaac was born 25 years after the giving of the promise to  Abram, but did anything of import happen 30 years afterwards?  (430 minus 30 equals 400.)  I believe we can demonstrate that something very important happened.

As we just read in chapter 21 of Genesis Isaac was born when Abraham was 100 years old.  We are told in verse 8 that “the child grew, and was weaned.”  We don’t know the age but it was common for a child to be weaned at or near two years of age.  Following the story through we find that Ishmael and his mother are sent away.  We read of a covenant or an agreement that Abraham makes with Abimelech and Abraham’s planting trees in Beersheba.  When we come to chapter 22 we read of one of the most important events recorded in Scripture, the sacrifice of Isaac.  As we will see as we study this account  there is the most wonderful symbolism found here.  And, I submit that it was this event that the four hundred years is reckoned from, when Isaac was five years old.

Before we go through this let us go back to Exodus 12 and verse 41.  It is stated in this verse that the event took place “even the selfsame day.”  Some other renderings make it even clearer.  The Bible in Basic English and the Tanakh, the Holy Scriptures both have it “to the very day.”  Do you understand what is being said?  The covenant with Abraham  occurred on the very same day, the 14th day of the first month at even.  And, as we will see, the sacrifice of Isaac also was at the time of the later to be commanded Passover sacrifice. It also appears that it was in the springtime when Jacob and his family entered Egypt to live there.  Undoubtedly this event occurred on “the same day.”  (See Gen. 45:6)

Let us go through the story of Isaac being offered and notice the powerful symbolism contained in it.  Genesis 22:2 God instructs Abraham to take his son, “thine only son Isaac.”  The word “son” is not in the original but is definitely implied.  In type Abraham here represents God the Father. In all of Scripture we do not find another individual that pictured or was a type of The Father. The name, Abraham, means “father of a multitude.”  Abraham is call the “father of many nations”(Gen. 17:4; Rom. 4:17-18) and the “father of us all” (Rom. 4:16).  God, The Father , would later  offer “His only Son.”  Verse 2 further states, “whom thou lovest.”  Again it was just as The Father loved His Son but was willing to give Him as a sacrifice.  Abraham is told to “get thee into the land of Moriah.”  The land of Moriah is exactly where Jerusalem was to be built later. Some commentators indicate this was the very spot upon which Solomon built the Temple.   I personally believe the place  where Isaac was to be sacrificed was very likely the exact spot where Jesus, the Messiah died.  The day Isaac was “selected” to be the sacrifice I believe was the 10th day of the first month.  That was the day the Passover lamb was to be selected (Ex. 12:3) and the same day Jesus rode into Jerusalem and was “selected” by the Father (see John 12:28).

Verse 3 tells us that Abraham rose up early in the morning of  the following day (this would have been the 11th) and with Isaac and two young men they began their journey to the place God had told him.  In verse 4 we are told that “then on the third day Abraham lifted up his eyes, and saw the place afar off.”  The third day would have been the 13th.  The place was yet “afar off.”  Leaving the young men, verse 5, he and Isaac, called here the lad, began to go on “yonder.”  The Hebrew word translated “lad” here means a boy or a youth, and is translated “child” 44 times.  I believe Isaac at five years of age would accurately be described as a “lad” or a “child.”

One commentator tries to show Isaac to be the same age as Jesus when He was killed.  Josephus states that Isaac was twenty five years old at this time but does not indicate how he arrives at this figure.  I feel a young boy would picture the attitude and character of Jesus, pure, without blemish, without guile as 1 Pet. 2:22 says.  Also, it is as the Messiah Himself said, that we all must become as little children.

In verse 6 we are told that the wood for the burnt offering was laid upon Isaac his son.  Isn’t it fitting that later the Father’s Son would be compelled to carried the wooden beam that would be used in His crucifixion, His fiery trial?  Isaac asks Abraham where the lamb for the offering was (verse 7) and Abraham says that “God will provide himself a lamb.”  As we know, God the Father did supply  Jesus, the Messiah, the “Lamb of God”, for the offering and sacrifice on behalf of all of mankind.

In verse 9 we are told they came to the place which God had told Abraham of.  After arriving there Abraham built an altar and prepared everything.  I submit that as God does everything on an exact timetable, at “His appointed times” this would now have been the late afternoon of the 14th.

We are familiar with the story of how God stopped Abraham from slaying his son at the last moment.  In verse 13 it states that Abraham lifted up his eyes and saw a ram caught in a thicket.  This ram, a male lamb, was offered “in the stead” of Isaac.   Jesus, the “Lamb of God”, was offered “in the stead” of each and everyone of us.

In verses 17 and 18 God reiterated the promise He had made with Abraham.

Genesis 22:17-18    That in blessing I will bless thee, and in multiplying I will multiply thy seed as the stars of the heaven, and as the sand which [is] upon the sea shore; and thy seed shall possess the gate of his enemies;  And in thy seed shall all the nations of the earth be blessed; because thou hast obeyed my voice. 

Notice that God specifically states three times that the blessings were to be through “thy seed.”  Reflect again on God’s words in Gen. 15:13.  The prophecy was specifically concerning “thy seed,” being a stranger, serving and being afflicted in a strange land for four hundred years.  I believe firmly that the four hundred years are counted from this event, which also occurred on that “very day.”

Returning to Exodus 12 let us note verse 42.  We often read this verse and when it states that it was “a night to be much observed” we think of great celebration.  The Hebrew gives the meaning to be “a night of watching.”  And, though the Israelites were watching, I submit that the watching, the vigil of this night was God’s.  Notice how this is rendered in the Tanakh, the Holy Scriptures.

Exodus 12:42   That was for the LORD a night of vigil to bring them out of the land of Egypt; that same night is the LORD’s, one of vigil for all the children of Israel throughout the ages. 

As we mentioned earlier, God does things on schedule at His appointed times.  He had promised to take the descendants of Abraham from the land in which they would be enslaved 430 years after His promise to Abraham.  And, we have seen that He was doing it EXACTLY to the very day.  God had been very definitely watching and vigilantly working all events out so that it happened on His timetable.

God spoke to Moses  from the “burning bush.”   He said that He had seen the affliction of His people and “I am come down to deliver them out of the hand of the Egyptians...”  (Ex. 3:8)   He hadn’t forgotten them and everything was on schedule per the time God had prophesied.  He had prepared Moses for the job.  He had worked it out so that Moses would have the training necessary for the job, acquired in the palace of Egypt.  He had now spent 40 years in the very area the Israelites would be spending the next several years in. Genesis 3:1 tells us that Moses kept the flocks of his father in law, Jethro, in “the backside of the desert,  and came to the mountain of God, even to Horeb.”  Horeb  and Sinai are used almost interchangeably, although there is some discussion as to whether Horeb may have been the name of the mountain range and Sinai the specific mount.  Nevertheless, it was in this very area that Moses had spent time with the flocks and had become very familiar with the territory.

In addition to “bringing Israel out of Egypt” God also was committed to fulfill His promise to Abraham to judge “that nation, whom they shall serve,” (Gen. 15:14).  Also, He had promised that after He had done that, the people would “come out with great substance.” (Same verse.)  When God spoke to Moses from the burning bush He repeated this promise, that the people would be given favor in the sight of the Egyptians and they would “not go empty.” (Ex. 3:21) Of course this was right after telling Moses that Pharoah would not let the people go “without being forced.”  (Ex. 3:19 Bible in Basic English)

You can review the many times God “hardened” Pharoah’s heart, of the many miracles, wonders and plagues God sent.  And, the timing was perfect!  It all came down to “the selfsame day.”  (Ex. 12:41)  What a marvelous and wonderful Elohim who was continually vigilant and observing His people, who was working out ALL the many events that took place over 430 years.  A magnificent Elohim who had everything culminate on the exact day the 430 years, the 400 years and the 215 years were up.

July 2002

I recently came across some additional information regarding the time the Israelites were in Egypt.  The following is from the Adam Clarke Commentary.

Here is a section from his commentary on Galatians 3:17.
How we arrive at the sum of 430 years may be seen in the note on Ex 12:40. Dr. Whitby also gives a satisfactory view of the matter. "The apostle refers to the promise made, Ge 12:3, since from that only are the 430 years to be computed, for then Abraham was 75 years old, Ge 12:4; from thence to the birth of Isaac, which happened when Abraham was 100 years old, (Ge 21:5,) 25 years; from his birth to the birth of Jacob, 60 years, for Isaac was 60 years old when Rebecca bare him, Ge 25:26. From Jacob's birth to the descent into Egypt, 130 years, as he said to Pharaoh, Ge 47:9. The abode of him and his posterity in Egypt was 215 years; so that, with their sojourning in Canaan, was 430 years;" the sum given here, and in Ex 12:40, where see the notes. (Clarke)

And, here is the commentary on Exodus 12:40.
Ex 12:40: Verse 40. Now the sojourning of the children of Israel, &c.] The statement in this verse is allowed on all hands to be extremely difficult, and therefore the passage stands in especial need of illustration. "That the descendants of Israel did not dwell 430 years in Egypt," says Dr. Kennicott, "may be easily proved, and has often been demonstrated. Some therefore imagine that by Egypt here both it and Canaan are to be understood. But this greater latitude of place will not solve the difficulty,
since the Israelites, including Israel their father, did not sojourn 430 years in both countries previous to their departure from Egypt. Others, sensible of the still remaining deficiency, would not only have Egypt in the text to signify it and Canaan, but by a figure more comprehensive would have the children of Israel to mean Israel's children, and Israel their father, and Isaac the father of Israel, and part of the life of Abraham, the father of Isaac.

"Thus indeed," says Dr. Kennicott, "we arrive at the exact sum, and by this method of reckoning we might arrive at any thing but truth, which we may presume was never thus conveyed by an inspired writer." But can the difficulty be removed without having recourse to such absurd shifts? Certainly it can. The Samaritan Pentateuch, in all its manuscripts and printed copies, reads the place thus:-
[Samaritan]

Umoshab beney Yishrael veabotham asher yashebu baarets Cenaan, ubaarets mitsraim sheloshim shanah vearba meoth shanah.

"Now the sojourning of the children of Israel, and of their fathers, which they sojourned in the land of Canaan and in the land of Egypt, was 430 years." This same sum is given by St. Paul, Ga 3:17, who reckons from the promise made to Abraham, when God commanded him to go to Canaan, to the giving of the law, which soon followed the departure from Egypt; and this chronology of the
apostle is concordant with the Samaritan Pentateuch, which, by preserving the two passages, they and their fathers, and in the land of Canaan, which are lost out of the present copies of the Hebrew text, has rescued this passage from all obscurity and contradiction. It may be necessary to observe that the Alexandrian copy of the Septuagint has the same reading as that in the Samaritan. The Samaritan Pentateuch is allowed by many learned men to exhibit the most correct copy of the five books of Moses; and the Alexandrian copy of the Septuagint must also be allowed to be one of the most authentic as well as most ancient copies of this version which we possess. As to St. Paul, no man will dispute the authenticity of his statement; and thus in the mouth of these three most respectable witnesses the whole account is indubitably established. That these three witnesses have the truth, the chronology itself proves: for from Abraham's entry into Canaan to the birth of Isaac was 25 years, Ge 12:4; 17:1-21; Isaac was 60 years old at the birth of Jacob, Ge 25:26; and Jacob was 130 at his going down into Egypt, Ge 47:9; which three sums make 215 years. And then Jacob and his children having continued in Egypt 215 years more, the whole sum of 430 years is regularly completed. See Kennicott's Dissertation on the Hebrew Text. (Clarke)

I had never heard of the Samaritan Pentateuch that the Adam Clarke Commentary referred to so did a bit of a search. The following from the Easton Bible Dictionary is interesting.

Samaritan Pentateuch - On the return from the Exile, the Jews refused the Samaritan participation with them in the worship at Jerusalem, and the latter separated from all fellowship with them, and built a temple for themselves on Mount Gerizim. This temple was razed to the ground more than one hundred years B.C. Then a system of worship was instituted similar to that of the temple at Jerusalem. It was founded on the Law, copies of which had been multiplied in Israel as well as in Judah. Thus the Pentateuch was preserved among the Samaritans, although they never called it by this name, but always "the Law," which they read as one book. The division into five books, as we now have it, however, was adopted by the Samaritans, as it was by the Jews, in all their priests' copies of "the Law," for the sake of convenience. This was the only portion of the Old Testament which was accepted by the Samaritans as of divine authority.

The form of the letters in the manuscript copies of the Samaritan Pentateuch is different from that of the Hebrew copies, and is probably the same as that which was in general use before the Captivity. There are other peculiarities in the writing which need not here be specified.

There are important differences between the Hebrew and the Samaritan copies of the Pentateuch in the readings of many sentences. In about two thousand instances in which the Samaritan and the Jewish texts differ, the LXX. agrees with the former. The New Testament also, when quoting from the Old Testament, agrees as a rule with the Samaritan text, where that differs from the Jewish. Thus Ex. 12:40 in the Samaritan reads, "Now the sojourning of the children of Israel and of their fathers which they had dwelt in the land of Canaan and in Egypt was four hundred and thirty years" (comp. Gal. 3:17). It may be noted that the LXX. has the same reading of this text.

Hanukkah? What Is That All About?

I recently received in the mail a little booklet entitled “Hanukkah Readings for the Believer.”  In the very first paragraph it stated, “One very important thing to remember when observing the festival of Hanukkah, is that it is a festival of celebration.  It is not necessary to observe all of the festival rituals that are common to the Jewish tradition, but on the other hand, it is certainly not wrong to do so.”  I immediately asked myself, “Is that so?”  Just what is Hanukkah all about?  Where did it originate?  Is celebrating it something that I should be doing or even want to be doing?  The following information is what I found after only some brief searching on the internet.

Numerous web sites give an account of what supposedly happened and how the festival was established.  Here is one account.

“In the fourth century B.C., Alexander the Great with his Greek armies conquered the Near East including Israel. After his death, his empire split apart. The land of Israel, after a period of struggle, came under the control of the Seleucid dynasty, which ruled the region of Syria. In the year 167 B.C., the king Antiochus Epiphanes decided to force all the peoples under his rule to hellenize. The practice of Jewish rituals such as the Sabbath and circumcision was outlawed. The worship of Greek gods and the sacrifice of pigs replaced the traditional worship in the temple. Some Jews eagerly flocked to the gymnasium, symbol of the Greek emphasis on the beauty and strength of the body. Others resisted Hellenism and died as martyrs.

 
One day the Greeks came to the village of Modi'in and set up an altar. They commanded the Jews to bring a pig as a sacrifice to show obedience to Antiochus's decree. Mattathias, an old priest, was so enraged when he saw a Jew about to do so that he killed him. He and his five sons then fought the Greek detachment, retreated to the mountains, and began a guerrilla war against the Greeks and their Jewish allies. Before he died of old age, Mattathias passed on the leadership to his son Judah the Maccabee. Judah led his forces against a series of armies sent by Antiochus, and through superior strategy and bravery he defeated them all. Finally, he and his followers liberated Jerusalem and reclaimed the temple from its defilement by the Greeks. They could find only one small cruse of oil, enough to last one day, but when they lit the temple menorah with it, a miracle occurred and the menorah burned for eight days. Since then we celebrate Hanukkah to remember the Maccabees and their successful fight for independence against the Greeks, and most of all the miracle of the oil.”

This sounds all good and wonderful but there is more to the story than what is contained in those two paragraphs.  As I kept searching and reading other articles I began finding such statements as:
“The celebration lasts for eight nights to commemorate a miracle that Jews believe occurred in the temple.”  (Emphasis mine) “According to the Talmud...”  (Emphasis mine) “According to Rabbinic tradition...”  (Emphasis mine) “According to tradition as recorded in the Talmud...”  (Emphasis mine) I could go on but these are representative of many statements I found.  One article stated, “Chanukkah (an alternate spelling for Hanukkah) is not mentioned in Jewish scripture, the story is related in the book of Maccabees, which Jews do not accept as scripture.”

Here are a few quotations from some articles written by Rabbi Michael Strassfeld regarding Hanukkah, found at  http://www.willoughbyontheweb.com/christmas/hanakkuah.htm

“The earliest versions are found in the First Book of Maccabees and the Second Book of Maccabees. While these books tell the history of the Maccabees, they did not become part of the Hebrew Bible. They were preserved by the church and can be found in collections of Apocrypha literature. Thus Hanukkah is the only major holiday that has no basis in the Bible.
The story found in the First and Second Books of the Maccabees (with some variations between the two books) is fairly similar to the traditional story outlined above except for one major exception--there is no mention of the cruse of oil nor of the miracle. While both books mention the cleansing and rededicating of the temple and even briefly mention the relighting of the lamps in the temple, nothing is said of the miracle. Hanukkah is instituted specifically for eight days not because of the miracle of the menorah but because it is modeled after the holiday of Sukkot, which the Maccabees could not observe while they were still fugitives in the mountains of Judea.
In the next account we have, that of Josephus, the Jewish historian of the first century of the Christian Era, there is again no mention of the miracle, but he does call the holiday ‘Lights.’”

Notice again what he says, “Thus Hanukkah is the only major holiday that has no basis in the Bible.”  He states, regarding the story found in the books of Maccabees, “–there is no mention of the cruse of oil nor of the miracle.”  He states that in the account of Josephus,  “there is again no mention of the miracle,...”  I find it very interesting that the holiday was  “instituted specifically for eight days not because of the miracle of the menorah but because it is modeled after the holiday of Sukkot,...”

Rabbi Strassfeld has some interesting things to say about the accounts even found in the Jewish rabbinic sources.

“As for rabbinic sources, we would expect to find the laws for the candlelighting in the Mishnah (the early collection of rabbinic material). in fact, we might expect a whole tractate devoted to Hanukkah as there is to Purim (the tractate Megillah ). Instead we find virtual silence in the Mishnah about Hanukkah.
Only in the Gemara (the later rabbinic material that together with the Mishnah makes up the Talmud) do we find our long-lost miracle of Hanukkah. In the tractate Shabbat 21b, the Gemara asks, "What is Hanukkah?" and answers by saying that the Greeks defiled the temple, and when the Hasmonaeans (another name for the Maccabees and their descendants) defeated them, they found only one cruse of oil with its seal unbroken. It contained enough oil for only one day, but a miracle happened and the menorah burned for eight days.”

Isn’t it interesting that “we find virtual silence in the Mishnah about Hanukkah?”

Another comment Rabbi Strassfeld makes I also find interesting.

“At first Hanukkah was celebrated as a reminder of the victory of the Maccabees. It also marked the rededication (Hanukkah means dedication) of the temple. Only later did the miracle of the oil come to dominate the military victory.”

Another web site, Kolel The Adult Centre For Liberal Jewish Learning, contributed a bit more information.  http://www.kolel.org/pages/holidays/Chanukah_intro.html

“The rabbis of the Talmud ask a strange question: Mai Chanukah? (Shabbat 21b). Loosely translated, this means, "What the heck is Hanukkah about anyway?" At this point you may be asking: ‘you mean the ancient sages of our tradition didn't know the story about the wicked Antiochus and the flask of oil that lasted eight days and about latkes and dreidels and little chocolate coins?’
Well, except for the latkes and dreidels and little chocolate coins part, the ancient sages did know that story. In fact, they gave it to us. What they were not sure was how to properly celebrate the holiday, or how all the different traditions that had developed fit together.”

The statement he makes regarding the rabbis and the story or Hanukkah is interesting, “In fact, they gave it to us.”  Dropping down in this article is another very interesting bit of information.

“When they took over the Temple and cleaned out all the remnants of the idolatrous Greek worship, they rededicated the Temple and then immediately held a late observance of the eight day festival of Sukkot, the most important festival of Temple times. The next year, to commemorate their victory and the rededication of the Temple, a "late Sukkot" was held again, thereby giving birth to our eight-day celebration of Chanukah - which means ‘dedication’.”

Sukkot, or the Feast of Tabernacles, was commanded by God to be kept beginning on the 15th day of the month Tishri, the 7th month of the year.  He didn’t leave it up to “men” to decide when to celebrate it and here we find that the Jews celebrated it “late” two years running.  It was the eight days of Sukkot that “gave birth to our eight-day celebration of Chanukah...”

It also mentions in this article that the books of Maccabees and Josephus do not tell us of the “miracle of the oil.”  Let’s look at what is recorded in this article concerning this.

“So what happened to the story of the oil and the miracle of the lights? Well, that's where the rabbis come in. In the rabbinic sources, we find virtual silence on the topic of Chanukah in the Mishnah. It is only in the Gemara (the later rabbinic material which, along with the Mishna makes up the Talmud) that we find the new story about the oil and the miracle of the lights. By the time of the development of the Talmud, around 200-500 C.E., the Jews were living under Roman rule in Israel and under Persian rule in Babylon. In these circumstances, celebrating stories about military rebellion might not be viewed in too positive a light by the authorities, and the sages also feared that some Jewish hotheads might stir up trouble and cause all kinds of problems for the Jewish community. So the Talmudic sages put a new spin on the established holiday: God wrought a great miracle for the people, enabling the few to triumph over the many, and God showed the people another miracle in the oil, when a flask of ritually pure oil sufficient for one day lasted for all eight days.”

This is SO-O-O  telling, “So the Talmudic sages put a new spin on the established holiday:...”  And, notice  carefully what that spin was, “God wrought a great miracle for the people, enabling the few to triumph over the many, and God showed the people another miracle in the oil, when a flask of ritually pure oil sufficient for one day lasted for all eight days.”  The story of the miracle of the oil was fiction, made up by the sages, who were the Pharisees.

To answer my questions at the beginning of this article, the holiday of Hanukkah is not something I want any part of.  The dedication of the temple was understandable but to institute a “late Sukkot” and later to invent a story of the miracle of oil by men who knew better is something I don’t want any part of.

November 20, 2010

The Two Goats of Leviticus 16

 
The church that I was brought up in, and continued to follow the teachings of, for many years had a very misunderstood view of the two goats of Leviticus 16.  And, that explanation was that the goat that was killed represented Jesus Christ and the one that was sent away into the wilderness pictured Satan.  But, after many years with that teaching I had to ask,  is that explanation Biblically accurate?  Some of the “old” church literature mentions that “some have seen this goat (the one sent away) as a symbol of Christ.”  That explanation was ridiculed and the conclusion made that “based on all biblical evidence, it is logical to conclude that the scapegoat pictures Satan.” However, the booklet didn’t present any “biblical evidence.”  A reference was made to Revelation 20:1-2 with the comment that Satan is not bound by Christ but by an angel.  After the briefest mention of Satan being bound the statement is made, “we have just seen the symbolism associated with the Azazel Goat.”  This is not biblical evidence.

In looking at the information regarding the two goats as found in Leviticus 16 and connecting it to some very basic and clear Scriptures I must find that “all biblical evidence” doesn’t make it logical for me to conclude that the scapegoat or Azazel pictures Satan.  In this study we will  look at some of the real “biblical evidence.”

God spoke to Moses and instructed him to tell Aaron that he wasn’t to come into the holy place within the vail before the mercy seat at just any time. (Lev. 16:2)  He was to come only once a year.  We find  later in the chapter that this was on the Day of Atonement.  He was instructed on the animals for sacrifice, etc.  One was a young bullock for a sin offering, which was for Aaron and his house, verse 6.  A ram was to be brought for a burnt offering.

Aaron, of course, was a type of Jesus Christ.  The ninth chapter of Hebrews clearly details this.  Verse 7 mentions that the high priest “alone” went once every year into the “second” tabernacle, the Holy place.  We are told in verse 12 that Christ entered into the Holy place by His own blood.  And, verse 24 shows it wasn’t the “Holy place” in the tabernacle “made with hands” but into heaven itself.

And, relative to our study, Aaron was to “take of the congregation of the children of Israel two kids of the goats for a sin offering,” verse 5.  In verse 8 the instruction is for him to cast lots upon the goats.  One lot it says was for the Lord, and the other lot for the “scapegoat.”  The King James Version renders it scapegoat but many, if not most, of the newer translations leave it untranslated as “Azazel.”  Although, the lexicon does indicate that the meaning is “dubious” it has the word defined both as “Azazel” and as “entire removal.” Green’s Literal Translation renders the last part of verse 8, “and one lot for a complete removal.”  Young’s Literal Translation is similar.  It reads, “and one lot for a goat of departure.”  The Amplified Bible, a paraphrase, says, “the other lot for Azazel or removal.”

We find as we continue that Aaron is to offer the first goat for a sin offering, verse 9.  We’ve seen and understood the symbolism and the significance of this.  We know that Jesus Christ was made “to be sin for us,” II Cor. 5:21.  Hebrews 10 tells us that “this man, after he had offered one sacrifice for sins for ever, sat down on the right hand of God;” verse 12.  His supreme sacrifice, pictured by the goat being offered as a sin offering, was the ultimate “sin offering.”

Back to Leviticus 16, we find that Aaron was to kill this goat of the sin offering, “that is for the people,” verse 15.  Verse 16 says he was to make an atonement for the holy place “because of the uncleanness of the children of Israel, and because of their transgressions in all their sins:”

We need to be careful we don’t miss the picture of the first goat that was killed.  It’s blood, not the entire goat, was brought “within the vail” and was sprinkled upon the mercy seat and before the mercy seat.  (Lev. 16:15) And, as verse 16 says, “he shall make an atonement.”  What does that mean?  The Hebrew word translated “atonement” means “to cover over, atone, propitiate, pacify” and is often translated “reconcile” or “reconciled.”  We even see that in verse 20 of Leviticus 16, “And when he hath made an end of reconciling the holy place,...”

In the New Testament the Greek equivalent is katallage, “atonement,” and katallasso, “reconcile, reconciliation.”  Romans 5:10 tells us “we were reconciled to God by the death of His Son.”  And, verse 11 then says in the King James Version, speaking of Christ, “by whom we have now received the atonement.”  The margin shows “atonement” can be rendered “reconciliation.”  The “atonement” was to reconcile us to God, to cleanse us from sin (1 John 1:7), and to forgive our sins (1 John 1:9).  Jesus Christ is the “propitiation” for our sins (1 John 2:2), which is another word meaning “atonement” or “reconciliation.”  By His blood it was now possible that we could be reconciled to God.  Previously our sins separated us from God.

Then, verse 20 say, when he had finished “reconciling the holy place, and the tabernacle of the congregation, and the altar” he was to turn his attention to the “live goat.”

Verses 21 and 22 tell us what he was to do to this goat.  He was to place both his hands upon it’s head and confess over him “all the iniquities of the children of Israel, and all their transgressions in all their sins.”  They, the iniquities, transgressions and sins were put upon the head of the goat, verse 21.  This goat then was sent away.  Notice verse 22.  “And the goat shall bear upon him all their iniquities...”

This is where I had to ask some questions.   What is meant by “bearing” our iniquities?  Who “bears” our iniquities?  Let’s look at this for a bit.

The Hebrew word translated “bear” in Leviticus 16:22 is “nasa”, Strong’s H5375.  Among the several definitions given in the lexicon are, “to bear, carry, to take, take away, carry off.”  So, we are told that this goat was to “take away, carry off” all our iniquities which were put, or laid upon him. 

Do we find any Scriptures telling us who takes our iniquities and bears them away, removes them far from us?  Yes, we do.  And, is that individual Satan?  NO, IT ISN’T!  Look at a few Scriptures. 

Isaiah 53:4, “Surely he hath borne our griefs, and carried our sorrows: yet we did esteem him stricken, smitten of God, and afflicted.”  The word “borne” is the same word used in Leviticus 16:22, “nasa.”  And, this is a prophecy of Jesus Christ.  Dropping down a couple of verses we read     “All we like sheep have gone astray, we have turned every one to his own way, and the LORD hath laid on him the iniquity of us all.”  It is Christ who has our iniquities laid, placed, put upon Him.

Remember the lexicon’s definition of “scapegoat?”  Entire removal.  Let’s look at another Scripture.   Psalms 103:12 “As far as the east is from the west, [so] far hath he removed our transgressions from us.”  This again is speaking of “the LORD,” verse 1 and 2.  We all are familiar with verse 3 of this chapter, where it tells us of Christ, “Who forgiveth all thine iniquities; who healeth all thy diseases:” The Hebrew words translated “transgressions” and “iniquities”here in Palsms 103 are the same words used in Leviticus 16. 

Both goats in Leviticus 16 picture Jesus Christ.  He shed His blood so that we could be atoned for our transgressions.  As Hebrews 9:22 tells us “without shedding of blood is no remission.”  And, then down in verse 28 of Hebrews 9 we read, “So Christ was once offered to bear the sins of many,...”  On down in chapter 10 and verse 4 it says, “For it is not possible that the blood of bulls and of goats should take away sins.”  It was Christ that “bore our sins” and it was Christ that “took our sins away.”  The Azazel or the “goat of entire removal” pictured that part of Christ’s sacrifice, He took upon Himself our sins and iniquities and took them away, removed them far from us.

As we study Leviticus chapter 16 in light of the numerous clear scriptures of the rest of the Bible many things become clear.  We find Aaron, the high priest, symbolic of Christ, going into the  “holy place” with the blood of a bullock for the atonement for himself and his household.  Christ had no sin of His own and entered in with his own blood (Heb. 9:12),  pictured by the blood of the first goat of Leviticus 16.  The blood was for the atonement of the sins and transgressions of all people.  It was to “cover”, make atonement, for all our sins.  It was for the reconciling (Col. 1:20) of us to God.  It was for the remission of our sins, for without the shedding of blood there is no remission, Hebrews 9:22.  It was to cleanse us, 1 John 1:7.  He washed us from our sins in His own blood it tells us in Revelation 1:5.  Christ “purchased us” and “redeemed us” by His blood.  (Eph. 1:7; Col. 1:14; Heb. 9:12) Just a note.  The animal sacrifices only “covered” the sins, Christ’s sacrifice totally removed them!

Although our sins were atoned for, covered, etc. the sins still had to be removed.  And, Christ bore our sins in His body (1 Pet. 2:24).  He bore them, took them away, removed them completely.  This is pictured by the second goat, the Azazel, the goat of removal.  This goat, if you will, pictured Christ’s body.  Leviticus 16:21 says that after “putting” the sins and transgressions and iniquities of all of the people upon the head of this goat the high priest was to “send him away by the hand of a fit man.”  My previous understanding, as mentioned at the beginning of this article, identified this “fit man” as an angel that cast Satan into the bottomless pit.  However, this does not seem to be the case.  I had to ask, “Who took away the body of Christ, pictured by this Azazel goat?”  We are familiar with the story of Joseph of Arimathaea going to Pilate and begging the body of Jesus.  I find the descriptions of Joseph to be similar to the expression in Leviticus, “a fit man.”  Mark 15:43 says he was “an honourable counseller.”  Luke says of him in Luke 23:50, “...a counseller; and he was a good man, and a just.” 

What does a “fit man” mean, as used in Leviticus 16:21?  “Fit” is from the Hebrew ittiy, H6261 in Strong’s.  This is the only place it is used in the O.T.  The meaning is “timely, ready.”  The word translated “man” means just that, a man.  In the descriptions given and quoted above regarding Joseph, it says “he was a good man.”  The lexicon shows the word “good” to be translated from the Greek huparcho, G5225 in Strong’s.  The second definition is very revealing.  “To come forth, hence to be there, be ready, be at hand.” (Emphasis mine.) Joseph was the “fit” man, the one that was ready to perform the necessary details of claiming the body of Jesus and preparing it for burial.

Leviticus 16: 22 says that the goat, the Azazel, was to bear upon him all the iniquities “unto a land not inhabited.”  Does this represent the grave, the tomb, the sepulcher of Jesus Christ?  I believe that it does.  Notice some items of interest here.  The Hebrew word translated “land” is used in a number of ways in the O.T., generally as land, earth, country, etc.  But, I did find that in the lexicon definitions one listing under “land” is “Sheol, land without return,...”  Sheol as we know is the Hebrew word often translated “hell” or the grave.  The word translated “inhabited” in the phrase “not inhabited” is zerah, H1509 in Strong’s.  This is the only place it is used in the entire O.T.  It means “a separation, a separate place.”  It is rendered as “a land cut off” in Green’s Literal Bible and in the Jewish Publication Society’s Holy Scriptures.  Darby’s Translation has it “to a land apart [from men];” The last portion of Leviticus 16:22 says the Azazel goat was to be  let go  by the  fit man  “in the wilderness.”  The word used for “wilderness” is defined as “wilderness, pasture, uninhabited land, large tracts of wilderness (around cities)...”  (Emphasis mine.)  What could be better defined as a “land” or area that is “uninhabited” and “cut off” than the grave?

I believe that the indications become even stronger that the wilderness is symbolic of the grave when we link it with baptism.  Romans 6 speaks of us being buried with Christ by baptism, that we have been “planted together in the likeness of his death” (verse 5).  Then verse 6 says, “Knowing this, that our old man is crucified with him, that the body of sin might be destroyed,...” (Emphasis mine.)  Christ “bore” our sins in His body.  It was His body that was taken by the “fit man”, Joseph of Arimathaea, unto a “land not inhabited,” the grave.  Our sins and the sins of the world were carried away, borne away, by Jesus Christ in His body.

Additionally I see a tie in with baptism in the instructions given in Leviticus 16:23-24 for the high priest to “wash his flesh with water in the holy place.”  And, the “fit man” that took the Azazel goat into the wilderness was to “wash his clothes, and bathe his flesh in water,” verse 26.  Also, the individual that had the job of burning the bullock and the goat whose blood had been brought in to make atonement was also to “wash his clothes, and bathe his flesh in water,” verse 28.  Hebrews 10:22 is also interesting in this connection.  “Let us draw near with a true heart in full assurance of faith, having our hearts sprinkled from an evil conscience, and our bodies washed with pure water.”    

As quoted above, the Azazel goat was to be “let go” in the wilderness.  Some commentaries state that it became the custom for the man taking the goat into the wilderness to push the goat over a cliff resulting in it’s death.  But, Scripture says specifically it was to be “let go.”  The Hebrew word here is shalach,H07971 in Strong’s.  The lexicon defines it specifically as “to send, send away, let go...”  Additional definitions include “to let loose”,    “to send off or away or out or forth” and “to let go, set free.”  Why was the goat to be set free?  Since we see the indications that it was picturing the sins of all being borne by Christ’s body to the grave why wasn’t it also killed as was the first goat?  I believe the answer lies in the fact that Jesus was resurrected and came out of that tomb.  No analogy is 100% accurate all the way through.  The goat was not killed and then resurrected as Christ was. There appears to be a second analogy or picture seen here.  The Azazel goat  was allowed to remain alive picturing the resurrected Christ.  I believe we see this  revealed in Romans 5:10. “ For if, when we were enemies, we were reconciled to God by the death of his Son, much more, being reconciled, we shall be saved by his life.”  We were reconciled, the atonement of and by the blood of Christ.  Our sins were borne away by the body of Christ BUT we “shall be saved by His life.”  It was through His resurrection and His entering into the Holy place in heaven as our High Priest that we can receive salvation.

As mentioned above, some commentaries and Bible dictionaries mention the custom that developed of pushing the Azazel goat over a cliff, resulting in it’s death.  Apparently, after being “let go” in the wilderness the goat would find it’s way back to the camp.  This would not be unusual for a domesticated animal.  The picture that the priests and Levites apparently saw was a “sin laden” goat returning.  And, they took it upon themselves to kill the goat contrary to the clear Scriptural instructions.  I submit that the picture that should have been drawn was of the resurrected Christ having left all of those sins behind, buried once and for all.

This brings us to another picture from Leviticus 16.  We have seen that there were two goats, each depicting a part of Christ’s sacrifice, one for the shedding of blood for the atonement, the covering of our sins, and the other carrying our sins away.  It has been suggested by one individual, and I believe it can be demonstrated , that the two goats are also symbolic of the two comings of Jesus Christ.  The first goat, which was killed, pictures Christ’s first coming and His sacrifice.  The second goat, the Azazel, would picture His second coming.  As we have demonstrated from Scripture, we do see the picture of our sins being carried away by the body of Christ.

Notice   Luke 4:18-19 “ The Spirit of the Lord [is] upon me, because he hath anointed me to preach the gospel to the poor; he hath sent me to heal the brokenhearted, to preach deliverance to the captives, and recovering of sight to the blind, to set at liberty them that are bruised,  To preach the acceptable year of the Lord.”  I submit that the “acceptable year” will be the ultimate fulfillment of the year of jubilee which,  if you remember from Leviticus 25, began on the Day of Atonement.  The year of jubilee was a time of forgiveness of all debts and a total restoration. 
 
One may also note that Isaiah talks about "a fast, and an acceptable day to Jehovah" - where “yowm” ("day") can also mean "time" or "year." (Isa. 58:5)    The Fast (the day of Atonement) and liberation go hand in hand. In Isaiah we read: "Is not this the fast that I have chosen? to loose the bands of wickedness, to undo the heavy burdens, and to let the oppressed go free, and that ye break every yoke?" (Isa. 58:6)  That is just what was to be done on Atonement when it was a year of release of jubilee - all debts were to be cancelled, and all slaves, all in bondage were to be let free.

All of that was and is just a symbol of the real liberation and cancelling of debts which will take place on the real jubilee when Jesus comes, when that Atonement trumpet sounds, and  ALL sins will be carried away.  The finality will be when all are made spirit and there will be no more sin.

Above we mentioned that the individual that burned the bullock and the goat whose blood was brought into the tabernacle was to wash his clothes and bathe his flesh.  Also, in that verse, verse 27, it tells us that they were to be carried “forth without the camp” to be burned.  In reference to this Hebrews 13:11-12 tells us something significant.   “For the bodies of those beasts, whose blood is brought into the sanctuary by the high priest for sin, are burned without the camp.   Wherefore Jesus also, that he might sanctify the people with his own blood, suffered without the gate.”  It was by “His own blood he entered in once into the holy place.” (Heb. 9:12) The blood was for the atonement for our sins and iniquities.  Our sins were carried away outside the camp.  The suffering was outside the gate.  “Sin” was not taken into the holy place.  Even the Father forsook Christ when He took our sins upon Himself.  Isaiah 59:2 tells us that sins separate us from God.  The Tanakh, the new JPS translation of the Holy Scriptures,  renders this verse this way: “But your iniquities have been a barrier between you and your God, your sins have made Him turn His face away and refuse to hear you.”

Throughout the Bible fire is used as a type of trials.  Some see the burning of the animals symbolic of the “fiery trial” that Jesus endured, the trial he “suffered without the gate.” Peter makes a statement that seems very fitting with this understanding in 1 Peter 4:12-13, “ Beloved, think it not strange concerning the fiery trial which is to try you, as though some strange thing happened unto you:  But rejoice, inasmuch as ye are partakers of Christ's sufferings; that, when his glory shall be revealed, ye may be glad also with exceeding joy.”  He equates “fiery trials” with us as “partakers of Christ’s sufferings.”

As I’m sure we all have noticed, the emphasis at Passover and at Atonement is similar.  At Passover a lamb was killed and it’s blood was placed on the lintel and the door posts.  It was the presence of the blood that caused the death angel to “pass over” the Israelites.  The “body” of the lamb was roasted and consumed.  We have seen the blood as a type of the shed blood of Christ and the roast lamb a type of the body of Christ.  At the final supper with his disciples Christ told them the wine was His blood of the new testament and the bread was His body.  He said, “For this is my blood of the new testament, which is shed for many for the remission of sins.”  (Matt. 26:28) Remission of sins, for an atonement.  He stated that the bread was His body.  Paul quotes what Jesus stated in 1 Corinthians 11:24, “And when he had given thanks, he brake [it], and said, Take, eat: this is my body, which is broken for you: this do in remembrance of me.” 

An interesting statement is made, “which is broken for you.”  Nowhere in the instructions in Exodus  regarding Passover or in Leviticus 16 relating to Atonement is there mention of the “body” being broken.  The lamb was not beaten nor was the Azazel goat.  Leviticus 16 simply tells us that our sins, transgressions and iniquities were to be placed upon the Azazel goat.  It is only when we come to the prophecy of Isaiah 53 do we see that something else was “borne” by Christ.  Notice again Isaiah 53:4, “Surely he hath borne our griefs, and carried our sorrows: yet we did esteem him stricken, smitten of God, and afflicted.”  The King James hides the true understanding.  The word “griefs” is the Hebrew choliy, H2483 in Strong’s.  It’s one and only definition in the lexicon is “sickness.”  The word “sorrows” is makob in Hebrew, H4341 in Strong’s, and is defined as “pain.”  It is in verse 6 that we read that “the Lord hath laid on him the iniquity of us all.”  But, verse 5 reveals why Christ’s body was “broken for” us.   Isaiah 53:5, “But he [was] wounded for our transgressions, [he was] bruised for our iniquities: the chastisement of our peace [was] upon him; and with his stripes we are healed.”  And, of course 1 Peter 2:24 tells us again, “ Who his own self bare our sins in his own body on the tree, that we, being dead to sins, should live unto righteousness: by whose stripes ye were healed.”  Christ bore our sins in His body AND He willingly went through the scourging for our physical healing.  That is another study.           

I’m sure that there is still much to be gleaned from the account of Leviticus 16 regarding the two goats.  But from this study I have seen things I never saw before.

(Latest revisions 2/26/01, 9/7/19)