There are a couple of instances of oaths in the Old Testament which when we first read them appear to be very strange and unusual. The first of these is found in Genesis 24 verses 1 through 9. Here we find Abraham asking his servant to swear that he wouldn’t take a wife for Abraham’s son from the daughters of the Canaanites. Notice specifically verses 2 and 9. “And Abraham said unto his eldest servant of his house, that ruled over all that he had, Put, I pray thee, thy hand under my thigh:” “And the servant put his hand under the thigh of Abraham his master, and sware to him concerning that matter.”
The second account is in Genesis 47:27-31. We find here that Jacob, whose name had been changed to Israel, was approaching the time of his death. He asked his son, Joseph, to swear to him that when the Israelites left Egypt that they would take his bones with them and bury them outside of Egypt. Verse 29 states, “put, I pray thee, thy hand under my thigh, and deal kindly and truly with me; bury me not, I pray thee, in Egypt.” And, verse 31 says that Jacob asked his son to “Swear unto me. And he sware unto him.”
To those of us in this day and age find this very strange. Why would Abraham and later Jacob ask that one “put his hand under his thigh” and swear an oath? What is this all about?
I checked various translations, thinking that maybe there might be a better translation. A couple said “leg” or “hip” rather than thigh but none gave any additional clarification.
Finally, I checked the Hebrew word that is translated “thigh.” The word is yarek, Strong’s number H3409. It is from an unused root meaning to be soft. The definition states, “the thigh (from its fleshy softness): by euphemism [My note: a euphemism is the substitution of an inoffensive or mild expression for one that may offend or suggest something unpleasant.] the generative parts; figurative a shank, flank, side; body, loins, shaft, side, thigh.”
I believe that we can begin to understand where the hand was placed–on the male genitals.
But, why? Before we answer that let us ask another question. Why is a Bible used in the modern courtroom? Isn’t it because it is esteemed to be the most holy and sacred thing we possess, the most holy thing between man and God?
Now, back to why the hand was placed on the male genitals. In Genesis chapter 17 we read of the covenant that God made with Abram, whose name was later changed to Abraham. In verses 10 and 11 we read of the sign of that covenant. “This is my covenant, which ye shall keep, between me and you and thy seed after thee; Every man child among you shall be circumcised, And ye shall circumcise the flesh of your foreskins; and it shall be a token of the covenant betwixt me and you.”
Can we begin to understand? There was no Bible in existence. The most holy thing that Abraham and Jacob had was the covenant they had with God. The “sign” or “token” of that covenant was circumcision.
Genesis 24:2 and Genesis 47:29 could be much better understood if it had been rendered, “Please, put your hand upon my circumcised part: And I will make thee swear by the Lord...”
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